Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10 trường THPT Lương Ngọc Quyến, Thái Nguyên năm học 2015 - 2016
Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10 trường THPT Lương Ngọc Quyến, Thái Nguyên năm học 2015 - 2016 Đề thi học sinh giỏi môn tiếng Anh lớp 10 có đáp án Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp ...
Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10 trường THPT Lương Ngọc Quyến, Thái Nguyên năm học 2015 - 2016
Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10 năm 2016 có đáp án
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Đề thi học sinh giỏi tiếng Anh lớp 10 tỉnh Vĩnh Phúc năm học 2011 - 2012
Đề thi học sinh giỏi trại hè Hùng Vương lần thứ XI năm 2015 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10
Đề thi chọn đội tuyển học sinh giỏi môn tiếng Anh lớp 10 trường THPT Liễn Sơn, Vĩnh Phúc năm học 2014 - 2015
PART A: LISTENING
Question 1- 4: Choose the best answer to each question:
1. Where does the conversation take place?
A. in an office B. in a bookstore C. at a bus stop D. in front of a ticket booth
2. Which office helps overseas students with their particular problems?
A. Sport Club B. Union Societies
C. Accommodation Office D. Welfare Office
3. What kind of sport doesn't the student mention?
A. basketball B. badminton C. wrestling D. motor racing
4. Where can the Filipino student find his compatriots at the school?
A. Training sessions B. Filipino Society C. Badminton court D. Basketball team
Question 5-10: Fill in the gaps numbered 5-10:
Name Caesar Surname 5 ______________________ City 6 ______________________ Subject 7______________________ Length of the course 8 ______________________ Job in the future 9 _____________________ Reason for choosing this university 10_____________________ |
PART B : PHONETICS ( 5pts )
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the same line. (2pts)
11. A. creates B. motorbikes C. theatres D. tapes
12. A. excursion B. further C. surgery D. surprise
II. Choose the words with the different stress pattern from the others: (3 pts)
13. A. religious B. environment C. inconvenient D. development
14. A. computer B. composite C. company D. comfortable
15. A. modernization B. urbanization C. mathematician D. influential
PART C: LEXICAL AND GRAMMAR (45 pts)
I. Choose the option A, B, C or D to indicate the word or phrase which best completes each sentence.(15pts)
16. Do you know that man _____ near the door?
A. stands B. stood C. is standing D. standing
17. Linh informs her aunt about her high school graduation exam results. Select the most suitable response to fill in the blank.
Linh: "Aunty, I've passed the exam with flying colours." - Aunt: "______"
A. Sorry to hear that. B. Congratulations! C. That's right. D. How many colours?
18. I'm sorry, but I _____ seeing the manager at once.
A. arrange for B. look for C. agree with D. insist on
19. He was found guilty of drunken driving and banned _____ for five years.
A. from driving B. for driving C. to drive D. driving
20. Daisy's marriage has been arranged by her family. She is marrying a man ___.
A. she hardly knows him B. whom she hardly know
C. she hardly knows D. that she hardly know
21. The more expensive the hotel, ___ the service.
A. better B. best C. the best D. the better
22. _____ a scholarship, I entered the unknown territory of private education.
A. To award B. To be awarded C. Having awarded D. Having been awarded
23. There's no _____ between Gary and Mark, even though they are brothers.
A. resemblance B. appearance C. correspondence D. reflection
24. No matter _______, Mozart was an accomplished composer while still a child.
A. how it seems remarkable B. how remarkable it seems
C. it seems remarkable how D. how seems it remarkable
25. I've been ______ advised not to say anything.
A. seriously B. greatly C. strongly D. significantly
26. We expected her at nine but she finally _____________ at midnight.
A. came to B. turned out C. turned up D. came off
27. There was a _________table in the middle of the room.
A. Japanese round beautiful wooden B. beautiful wooden round Japanese
C. beautiful wooden Japanese round D. beautiful round Japanese wooden
28. A:________________ - B: Oh, thank you. I just got it yesterday.
A. When have you got this beautiful dress?
B. You've just bought this beautiful dress, haven't you?
C. How a beautiful dress you're wearing
D. That's a beautiful dress you have on!
29. According to a recent survey, most people are on good ______ with their neighbours
A. relations B. terms C. acquaintance D. relationships
30. His father is a bank manager, ________ makes him easy to have a good job.
A. which B. whom C. that D. who
II. Supply the correct tenses/ form of the verb in brackets:(10pts)
31. You look great! You (exercise) _______ at the fitness center?
32. The teacher along with her students (laugh) ________ heartily when the Vice Principal walked past.
33. She doesn't want (call) _________ at home unless there is an emergency.
34. It is necessary that he (finish) __________ the report on time.
35. Once they have finished the extension to the factory, there (be) _____ room for them to take on a lot more workers.
36-37. The little boy had a lot of trouble (convince) ___ everyone that he (see) ___ a mermaid.
38. I don't believe a word he says. I think he (lie) ________.
39. By the time you come back here next year, this new plaza building (complete) ________.
40. I didn't get home until after midnight last night. Otherwise, I (return) _____ your call.
III. Give the correct form of the words in brackets: (10pts)
41. Lisa is very ___. She always manages to look good in photographs. 42. He is ______ for his charitable activities than for his business in the steel industry. 43. You must learn to __________ between politeness and real kindness. 44. Playing a sport together will teach your children about fair play, _______ and working with others. 45. People used to suffer from their life-time physical ________. 46. If we don't ______ on electricity, there will be power cuts. 47. Languages are used for ________ purpose. 48. It is against the law to destroy _______ buildings. 49. National football teams must compete in _______ within their own regions. 50. Earth Hour is a ______ event organized to raise people's awareness about the need to take action on climate change. |
(PHOTO) (KNOW) (DIFFERENT) (SPORT) (NORMAL) (ECONOMY) (COMMUNICATE) (HISTORY) (ELIMINATE) (WORLD) |
PART D: READING (30 pts)
I. Read the following passage and circle the most suitable answer ( A,B,C or D ) for each space: (10pts)
Good press photographers must have an "eye" for news, just as journalists must have a "nose" for a good story. They must be (61)_______ to interpret a story and decide rapidly how they can take (62) _____ of the best opportunities to take pictures. The (63)______ difficult part of a press photographer's job is that he or she has to be able to (64)______ a complicated situation with just one photograph. They rarely have second (65) ______ and must be able to take required (66) _____ very quickly. Indeed, speed is essential - if the photographs are not ready for the printing deadline, they are very unlikely to be of any (67)______ . Most press photographers begin work with a local newspaper. There, the (68)______ is mostly for material of regional interest. Photographers may be expected to photograph a lot of unexciting events but to (69)______ the enthusiasm to put "something special" (70) ______ every picture.
61. A. able B. possible C. probable D. capable
62. A. profit B. benefit C. advantage D. use
63. A. much B. more C. most D. better
64. A. draw up B. sum up C. put out D. turn
65. A. occasions B. chances C. possibilities D. moments
66. A. image B. illustration C. scene D. shot
67. A. role B. employment C. use D. achievement
68. A. task B. demand C. obligation D. duty
69. A. keep up B. hold on C. stay D. carry on
70. A. into B. out of C. from D. within
II. Supply the most suitable word for each blank. (10 pts)
There are several things to remember if you are (71)_____ for a new job. Most companies (72)_____ their vacancies in the newspaper, and there are normally a lot of (73)_____ for each post. A good letter of application is (74)_____ very important. You should (75)_____ with it your curriculum vitae, so that the (76)_____ knows about your qualifications and experience. If you are applying to a large company, address your letter to the Personnel Manager, (77)_____ deals with appointing new staff. If you are invited to an interview, (78)_____ sure you arrive suitably dressed and (79)_____ time. Remember to (80)_____ politely about promotion prospects, as well as further training, and last but not least, the salary and holiday arrangements.
III. Read the passage and circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions: (10pts)
One of the seven wonders of the ancient world, the Great Pyramid of Giza was a monument of wisdom and prophecy built as a tomb for Pharaoh Cheops in 2720 B.C. Despite its antiquity, certain aspects of its construction make it one of truly great wonders of the world. The thirteen-acre structure near the Nile River is a solid mass of stone blocks covered with limestone. Inside are the number of hidden passageways and the burial chamber for the pharaoh. It is the largest single structure in the world. The four sides of the pyramid are aligned almost exactly on true north, south, east, and west – an incredible engineering feat. The ancient Egyptians were sun worshippers and great astronomers, so computations for the Great Pyramid were based on astronomical observations.
Explorations and detailed examinations of the base of the structure reveal many intersecting lines. Further scientific study indicates that these represent a type of timeline of events-past, present and future. Many of the events have been interpreted and found to coincide with known facts of the past. Others are prophesied for the future generations and are currently under investigation. Many believe that pyramids have supernatural powers and this one is no exception. Some researchers even associate it with extraterrestrial beings if the ancient past.Was this superstructure made by ordinary beings, or one built by a race far superior to any known today?
81. What has research of the base revealed?
A. A superior race of people built it.
B. Tomb robbers have stolen the pharaoh's body.
C. There are cracks in the foundation.
D. The lines represent important events.
82. Extraterrestrial beings are _____.
A. very strong workers B. astronomers in the ancient times
C. researchers in Egyptology D. living being from other planets
83. What was the most probable reason for providing so many hidden passages?
A. To keep grave robbers from finding the tomb and the treasure buried with the pharaoh.
B. To allow the weight of the pyramid to settle evenly.
C. To permit the high priests to pray at night.
D. To enable the pharaoh's family to bring food for his journey to the afterlife.
84. The word "feat" in the first passage is closest in meaning to _____.
A. structure B. accomplishment C. festivity D. appendage
85. What do the intersecting lines in the base symbolize?
A. Dates of important events taking place throughout time.
B. Architect's plans for the hidden passages.
C. Pathways of the great solar bodies.
D. Astrological computation.
86. In the second passage, the world "prophesied" is closest in meaning to_____.
A. precipitated B. foretold C. affiliated D. terminated
87. What is the best title for the passage?
A. Symbolism of the Great Pyramid.
B. Wonders of the Great Pyramid of Giza.
C. Exploration of the Burial Chamber of Cheops.
D. Problems with the construction of the Great Pyramid.
88. On what did the ancient Egyptians base their calculations?
A. Advanced tools of measurement. B. Knowledge of the earth's surface.
C. Observation of the celestial bodies. D. Advanced technology.
89. Why was the Great Pyramid constructed?
A. As a solar observatory. B. As a religious temple.
C. As a tomb for the pharaoh. D. As an engineering feat.
90. Why is the Great Pyramid of Giza considered one of the Seven Wonders of the World?
A. It is perfectly aligned with the four cardinal points of the compass and contains many prophecies.
B. It is very old.
C. It was selected as the tomb of Pharaoh Cheops.
D. It was built by a super race.
PART E: WRITING ( 20 pts )
I. Complete each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. (5pts)
91. You can try to get Mark to lend you his car but you won't succeed.
There's no point ............................................................................................................
92. I prefer going out for a meal to staying at home.
I'd rather .....................................................................................................................
93. The plane had hardly left the airport when a big problem occurred.
No sooner ....................................................................................................................
94. He didn't become a famous film director until he was 55.
It was not ....................................................................................................................
95. All the recipes in this cook book are difficult to follow.
I have ........................................................................................................................
II. Rewrite each of the sentences using the given word so that the new one has a similar meaning as the one preceded. You must not change the given word. (5 pts)
96. People say that the pyramids are worth visiting. (SUPPOSED)
...............................................................................................................................
97. The demand was so great that they had to reprint the book immediately. (SO)
...............................................................................................................................
98. "Would you like to come to my birthday party, Sarha?" asked Frederic. (INVITE)
................................................................................................................................
99. My Thuan is the longest bridge that I've ever seen. (LONGER)
................................................................................................................................
100. I am considering visiting my uncle in Da Nang this summer. (ABOUT)
................................................................................................................................
III. Write a paragraph of 120 – 150 words about the the benefits of doing exercise. (10 pts)
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